As UPSC CSE Prelims 2026 is just a few months away, current affairs should be your primary focus. UPSC Weekly Quiz is a current affairs–based quiz on relevant topics from the past week, curated for aspirants of competitive examinations. Attempt the weekly quiz every Saturday and find detailed answers to the MCQs with explanations.

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With reference to the MILAN-2026, consider the following statements:

1. The MILAN-2026 was organised by the Indian Navy.

2. Navies of more than 50 countries participated in the exercise.

3. The first edition of the exercise was held in 2005 at Visakhapatnam.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2026?

The multinational naval exercise MILAN was conducted recently, making it a current affairs–linked defence topic. It reflects India’s growing maritime cooperation in the Indo-Pacific. UPSC can ask prelims questions on recent military exercises, participating countries, and organising forces.

Explanation:

— Iran frigate IRIS Dena—which had participated in the International Fleet Review (IFR) and multilateral exercise MILAN-2026 organised by the Indian Navy last month and was on its way back—sank off the south-western coast of Sri Lanka following a torpedo attack from a US Navy fast attack submarine.

— The Indian Navy last month hosted three major maritime events, including the IFR, the MILAN-2026, and the Indian Ocean Naval Symposium (IONS) Conclave of Chiefs in Visakhapatnam between February 15 and 25. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

— Navies of 74 countries and a total of 85 ships, including 19 foreign warships, participated in the exercise, including delegations and assets from the US and Iran. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

— MILAN 2026 was aimed at bringing together navies from across the globe to strengthen interoperability, maritime domain awareness, and collective response capabilities.

— Exercise MILAN, launched in 1995 with four navies at Port Blair, has evolved into a premier Multilateral Exercise with partner navies across the globe participating in 2024. This was the 13th edition of the exercise. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

— The Harbour and Sea phases of the exercise focused on complex maritime operations including anti-submarine warfare, air defence, search and rescue, and cooperative security missions, reinforcing a shared commitment to free, open, inclusive, and rules-based seas.

— The International City Parade featured contingents from participating navies, the Indian Army, and the Indian Air Force marching through Visakhapatnam’s RK Beach, showcasing maritime diplomacy directly to citizens.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

Which of the following is/are the effects of rise in crude oil prices?

1. increase in annual import bill

2. decrease in current account deficit

3. high inflation

4. high purchasing power

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 1, 2 and 4

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1 and 3 only

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2026?

Fluctuations in global crude oil prices directly affect India’s trade balance, inflation, and fiscal stability, making it a key area in the Indian economy. Recent geopolitical tensions and supply disruptions in regions like the Middle East have kept oil prices volatile.

Explanation:

— The escalating conflict in West Asia is beginning to cast a long and ominous shadow over India’s economy. The rupee slid past the psychologically crucial 92-mark to 92.17 against the US dollar on Wednesday morning (March 4), as surging crude oil prices and disrupted trade flows threaten to make imports costlier, stoke inflationary pressures, and impact the monetary policy of the country.

— For India, which imports nearly 80 per cent of its crude oil requirements, the implications are stark. A weaker rupee, rising import costs, mounting inflationary pressures and a potential recalibration of monetary policy now loom large.

— When the Indian currency depreciates, the first and most immediate casualty is the import bill. Crude oil, electronic components, fertilisers and industrial machinery — all priced in dollars — suddenly become more expensive. The burden then steadily shifts to businesses and households, pushing up inflation and eroding purchasing power. The threat of imported inflation is now increasingly becoming a reality. Hence, 3 is correct and 4 is not correct.

— A $1 rise in crude oil increases India’s annual import bill by roughly $1.5–2 billion, depending on total import volumes. This directly widens the current account deficit (CAD). India’s CAD increased to $ 13.2 billion (1.3 per cent of GDP) in the third quarter of 2025-26 from $ 11.3 billion (1.1 per cent of GDP) in the same period of last year, according to the RBI data. Hence, 1 is correct and 2 is not correct.

— Energy-intensive industries, including aviation, logistics, paints and chemicals, are likely to experience margin compression due to rising input costs, while upstream oil producers could benefit from higher crude prices.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

With reference to the National Safety Day, consider the following statements:

1. India observes the National Safety Day on March 4, to promote safety across industries and build a culture of accident prevention.

2. The theme for National Safety Day 2026 is “Engage, Educate & Empower People to Enhance Safety”.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2026?

The observance is promoted by the National Safety Council of India through nationwide awareness campaigns. The observance is promoted by the National Safety Council of India through nationwide awareness campaigns.

Explanation:

— India observed National Safety Day on March 4, to promote safety across industries and build a culture of accident prevention. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

— This year, in 2026, it is celebrating the 55th National Safety Week under the theme “Engage, Educate & Empower People to Enhance Safety“, highlighting the importance of active participation, continuous learning, and empowering individuals to build a proactive safety culture and minimise accidents. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

— The year 2026 holds special significance as the NSC celebrates about six decades of committed efforts in workplace safety, occupational health, and environmental conservation.

— To promote ongoing safety awareness, the traditional National Safety Day and National Safety Week have been expanded to span the entire month, now designated as “National Safety Day (NSD)/National Safety Month (NSM)”.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

With reference to the places in news, consider the following pairs:

1. Port of Eilat – Mediterranean Sea

2. Port of Ashkelon – Red Sea

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly marked?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2026?

The Eilat port has frequently appeared in news due to disruptions in shipping routes. The Ashkelon port area has also been discussed in the context of the Israel–Hamas war and regional security. UPSC often asks map-based location questions from places appearing frequently in international news.

Explanation:

— As Iran’s retaliation to the US-Israel military campaign engulfs Gulf nations, oil prices have spiked. And yet, a lifetime ago, it was oil that brought Israel and Iran together to set up a joint venture in secret.

— The Six-Day War of June 1967 and the closure of the Suez Canal by Egypt forced Israel to explore other routes to import oil. At the same time, sellers of oil such as Iran, too, needed a different route: the Suez Canal remained shut till 1975.

— The Suez Canal’s closure led to a joint-venture between Israel and Iran in 1968 that would connect the Red Sea port of Eilat and the Mediterranean port of Ashkelon. However, Iran and Israel shrouded their involvement through entities based in Liechtenstein and Panama, respectively. Hence, pairs 1 and 2 are not correctly marked.

— The joint project seemingly worked well for a decade before it was nationalised by Israel following the Iranian Revolution of 1979.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

Consider the following statements about inoperative EPF accounts:

1. An EPF account is treated as inoperative if no contribution is received for a continuous period of three years after the member attains 55 years of age or from the date of retirement, whichever is later.

2. Of the total inoperative accounts, more than half are inoperative for over 5-10 years.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2026?

The issue of large numbers of inoperative provident fund accounts has recently been highlighted by the Employees’ Provident Fund Organisation. It is relevant to topics like social security coverage, labour welfare, and financial inclusion in the Indian economy.

Explanation:

— The Employees’ Provident Fund Organisation (EPFO) has a total of 31.83 lakh inoperative accounts, of which around 41% have been inoperative for over 5-10 years while about 22% are lying idle for over 20 years. In its latest (239th) meeting, EPFO’s Central Board of Trustees decided to address this issue by giving a nod for auto-settlement of such inoperative accounts, initially for those with unclaimed balance of Rs 1,000 or less, to their registered bank accounts.

— Inoperative accounts are those EPF accounts in which no interest is credited after a specified period. Mainly belonging to EPFO members who have retired after the age of 55 years, an EPF account is treated as inoperative if no contribution is received for a continuous period of three years after the member attains 55 years of age or from the date of retirement, whichever is later. If the member is below the age of 55 and there has been no contribution, such EPF accounts continue to earn interest till the age of 58. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

— Under the pilot project, the amounts will be directly credited to members’ Aadhaar-seeded and EPFO-linked bank accounts without requiring fresh claims or documentation. This is expected to simplify the process of claims settlement for such inoperative accounts, as members need not undertake any action on their side to receive their dues.

👁 UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz | March 01 to March 07, 2026

— Of the total 31.83 lakh inoperative accounts, 12.90 lakh (40.52%) are inoperative for over 5-10 years with an amount of Rs 3,402.25 crore. Some 6.93 lakh accounts (21.75%) with an amount of Rs 1,018.20 crore are lying idle for over 20 years, whereas 4.42 lakh accounts (18.12%) having Rs 2,336.32 crore are inoperative for over 3-5 years. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

With reference to the defence equipment, consider the following pairs:

1. Tomahawk – Drone

2. LUCAS – Cruise missile

3. B61 and B83 series – Gravity Bombs

How many of the pairs given above are correct?

(a) Only one pair

(b) Only two pairs

(c) All three pairs

(d) None of the above pairs

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2026?

These defence equipment are linked to current geopolitical tensions and modernization of global military arsenals. UPSC frequently asks prelims questions on defence technology and weapon systems appearing in international news.

Explanation:

— US Defence Secretary Pete Hegseth said that Iranian air defences had been severely degraded over the course of the last four days and that the US military would begin to deploy 500-pound, 1,000-pound, and 2,000-pound precision gravity bombs. This announcement marked a major tactical pivot in the ongoing campaign against Iran, signalling a move away from cautious, “stand-off” ammunition strikes to critical direct bombardment in the US-Iranian war.

— Until now, the US has relied on expensive, long-range “standoff munitions”, which are launched from outside the range of Iran’s air defence systems and strictly dismantle adversarial early-warning radars and surface-to-air missile batteries.

— The Tomahawk cruise missile and the LUCAS (Low-cost Unmanned Combat Attack System) drones have been the front-running standoff munitions for establishing US-Israeli dominance over Iranian airspace in the past few days. Hence, 1 and 2 are not correct.

— A gravity bomb, historically known as a “free-fall” bomb, is an unpowered munition. Unlike a cruise missile like the Tomahawk, it lacks an internal engine. Once released, its trajectory is dictated entirely by gravity, aerodynamics, and the speed and altitude of the dropping aircraft.

— The US arsenal also includes nuclear gravity bombs, such as the B61 and B83 series. The difference between these and conventional bombs lies in yield, cost, and authorisation. Hence, 3 is correct.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

With reference to the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS), consider the following pairs:

1. Israel and the United States are the signatory to UNCLOS.

2. International maritime law falls under the purview of UNCLOS.

3. It has explicit provisions for regulating the conduct of belligerent parties during armed conflict.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 2 and 3 only

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2026?

The United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea is frequently discussed in relation to maritime disputes. UNCLOS is important for issues like Exclusive Economic Zones (EEZ), seabed resources, and maritime governance. UPSC can ask prelims questions from international conventions and laws linked with current geopolitical developments.

Explanation:

— A US submarine torpedoed the Iranian warship IRIS Dena off the coast of Sri Lanka, outside its nautical boundary. The ship was returning after participating in the International Fleet Review and MILAN-2026, a multilateral naval exercise organised by the Indian Navy off Visakhapatnam last month.

— International maritime law falls under the purview of the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS). The US is not a signatory to it. Hence, statement 1 is not correct and statement 2 is correct.

— But it does not contain explicit provisions regulating the conduct of belligerent parties during armed conflict, as its primary focus is on peacetime governance. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

Which of the following is/are the mascots for the upcoming Census 2027?

1. Pragati

2. Samriddhi

3. Vikas

4. Suraksha

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 1, 2, 3 and 4

(c) 2 and 4 only

(d) 1 and 3 only

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2026?

Preparations for Census of India 2027 have been in the news after the government announced timelines and related awareness campaigns. The census is a crucial exercise for population data, planning, and policy formulation in India.

Explanation:

— The Union Home Minister soft-launched four advanced digital platforms and formally unveiled mascots “Pragati” and “Vikas” for the upcoming Census 2027, marking India’s first fully digital census exercise.

— “The mascots, a female enumerator ‘Pragati’ and male enumerator Vikas, symbolise equal participation of men and women in India’s resolve to become a developed nation by 2047. They will help disseminate census messages to diverse audiences in a relatable way,” a spokesperson of the Union Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) said in a statement.

— The four digital platforms include: Houselisting Block Creator (HLBC) Web Application: Enables charge officers to create standardised houselisting blocks using satellite imagery. HLO Mobile Application: A secure offline app for enumerators to collect and upload houselisting data in 16 regional languages, accessible only via registered numbers on Android and iOS. Self-Enumeration (SE) Portal: Allows households to submit data online beforehand, generating a unique SE ID for enumerator verification, a first in Indian census history. Census Management and Monitoring System (CMMS) Portal: A centralised dashboard for real-time tracking of census activities at sub-district, district, and state levels.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

Consider the following statements:

1. India and this nation elevated their ties to “Strategic Partnership in Digitalization and Sustainability”.

2. India and this nation aim to double bilateral trade by 2030.

3. India has also signed a pact for a joint task force on 6G and greater connectivity of startup ecosystems with this nation.

The above mentioned statements refer to which country?

(a) Norway

(b) Denmark

(c) Bulgaria

(d) Finland

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2026?

Strengthening trade and technology collaboration with Nordic countries reflects India’s broader engagement with the Nordic countries. UPSC can ask prelims questions on new strategic partnerships, bilateral agreements, and technology cooperation announced in current affairs.

Explanation:

— India and Finland elevated their ties to “Strategic Partnership in Digitalization and Sustainability”, after Prime Minister Narendra Modi and visiting Finnish President Alexander Stubb held bilateral talks in New Delhi on Thursday.

— The two sides signed three pacts on mobility, environment and statistics, and set the aim to double bilateral trade by 2030; establish a joint working group on digitalisation, a joint task force on 6G and greater connectivity of startup ecosystems; co-host World Circular Economy Forum in India; and put in place a consular dialogue.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

Which of the following Indian States pushes for ‘population boost’ due to an ageing population and reduced parliamentary representation for South India?

(a) Odisha

(b) Tamil Nadu

(c) Kerala

(d) Andhra Pradesh

Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2026?

Concerns are linked to the upcoming Delimitation of Parliamentary Constituencies in India after the freeze ends. Southern states fear a possible reduction in representation in the Lok Sabha due to their success in population control.

Explanation:

— The Telugu Desam Party (TDP)-led NDA government in Andhra Pradesh will give Rs 25,000 to couples for having a second or third child — a move that comes months after Chief Minister N. Chandrababu Naidu urged people to have more children citing concerns over declining fertility, an ageing population and reduced parliamentary representation for South India.

— “Currently, about 58% of families have only one child, around 2.17 lakh families have two children, and nearly 62 lakh families have three or more children,” he told the Assembly. “Around three lakh families have only one child instead of two, while another three lakh families have more than two children.”

— Claiming that Andhra Pradesh’s Total Fertility Rate (TFR) stands at 1.5 against the ideal 2.1 “to maintain demographic balance”, the chief minister said that as economies grow, birth rates tend to decline, which can create workforce shortages and long-term economic challenges.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz | February 22 to February 28, 2026

UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz | February 15 to February 21, 2026

UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz | February 08 to February 14, 2026

UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz | February 01 to February 07, 2026

UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz | January 25 to January 31, 2026

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