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As UPSC CSE Prelims 2026 is just a few months away, current affairs should be your primary focus. UPSC Weekly Quiz is a current affairs–based quiz on relevant topics from the past week, curated for aspirants of competitive examinations. Attempt the weekly quiz every Saturday and find detailed answers to the MCQs with explanations.
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With reference to the B28 train, consider the following statements:
1. It is the Bharat made Bullet trainset.
2. The manufacturing of B28 bullet trainset is currently done by Bharat Electronics Limited.
3. The E10 series of Shinkansen from Japan and Bharat made Bullet Trainset are based on the same technology.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2026?
The question is important for India’s push for indigenous high-speed rail technology under infrastructure modernisation. It also reflects India–Japan technological collaboration via Shinkansen and evolving self-reliance efforts. Students should focus on bilateral relations and the technological advancements between the nations.
Explanation:
— The Ministry of Railways has planned to introduce the B28 trainset to commence operations on India’s first bullet train corridor. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
— The B28 train is the Bharat made Bullet trainset. The manufacturing of B28 bullet trainset is currently underway at BEML’s (Bharat Earth Movers Limited) Bengaluru rail coach complex. The defence PSU was awarded the contract in October 2024 by Chennai-based Integral Coach Factory (ICF) to design, manufacture and commission two high-speed trainsets. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
— According to Railways, bullet train project is a very complex and technology intensive project. “The project involves technology transfer and procurement/supply from Japan and other countries. The development of E10 series of Shinkansen is underway in Japan. However, a decision has been taken to start the operation using B28. Efforts are underway to start operation using B28 (Bharat made Bullet, 280 kmph) for Surat to Vapi (97km) in Aug 2027,” it said.
— The E10 series of Shinkansen from Japan and Bharat made Bullet trains are not based on the same technology. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
Therefore option (a) is the correct answer.
An ancient coastal city of ‘Tyre’, a UNESCO World Heritage site known for its Roman-era ruins, was recently attacked. The place is located in:
(a) Israel
(b) Jordon
(c) Syria
(d) Lebanon
Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2026?
West Asia is frequently in news due to conflicts, making locations like Naqoura important for mapping. The question tests awareness of UNESCO-linked places in geopolitically sensitive regions.
Explanation:
— Israel has struck not just south Lebanon, but in many other areas, including the heart of the capital Beirut, a vibrant city where I have lived. In such densely populated areas, rocket strikes taking down entire buildings are devastating. Israel has also attacked Naquora, the headquarters of the United Nations Interim Force in Lebanon (UNIFIL), which also has Indian troops as members. Tyre, a UNESCO World Heritage site known for its Roman-era ruins, has been attacked.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Recently, two hydel projects — the 1,000 MW Pakaldul and 624 MW Kiru — were commissioned. They are located in:
(a) Arunachal Pradesh
(b) Himachal Pradesh
(c) Jammu and Kashmir
(d) Sikkim
Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2026?
It focuses on hydropower expansion. It is linked to energy security and renewable energy targets. It also reflects infrastructure push in border areas, often tested in current affairs-based questions. Aspirants must focus on renewable energy projects related to recent developments.
Explanation:
— According to official figures provided by the J&K Government in response to a question in the Legislative Assembly, the UT’s total installed hydropower capacity is currently 3,540.15 MW and is expected to rise to 5,164.15 MW by December 2026, when two hydel projects — the 1,000 MW Pakaldul and 624 MW Kiru — are commissioned. Official data shows 78% of work on both projects is complete.
— According to the government, J&K has an estimated hydropower potential of around 18,000 MW, of which about 15,000 MW has been identified. Of this, 3,540.15 MW has been harnessed so far, the data showed.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Which of the following countries have hydrogen trains operational?
1. Germany
2. India
3. United States
4. Russia
5. China
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 5 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 3, 4 and 5
(d) 1 and 5 only
Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2026?
The hydrogen trains are part of green mobility and decarbonisation of transport. It is often in news due to trail runs. Aspirants must learn about India’s upcoming hydrogen train initiatives and National Hydrogen Mission. Aspirants should know about the distinction between operational vs trial stage.
Explanation:
— India’s first hydrogen trainset has successfully completed its oscillation trial run. The test was conducted by the Research Designs and Standards Organisation (RDSO) as part of the evaluation process. With its introduction into commercial service, India will join an elite global league of countries including Germany, Sweden, Japan and China – that operate hydrogen-powered trains.
— The country’s first hydrogen-powered train will run between Jind and Sonipat in Haryana. Developed by Chennai-based Integral Coach Factory (ICF), this new train ensures a major step towards cleaner and greener rail transport in the country.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
With reference to the special drawing rights (SDRs), consider the following statements:
1. It is an international reserve asset.
2. It is a form of currency.
3. Its value is based on a basket of five currencies—the US dollar, the euro, the Chinese renminbi, the Japanese yen, and the British pound sterling.
4. Individuals and private entities can hold SDRs.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2026?
The question tests understanding of global financial instruments. It is also linked to IMF reforms and liquidity support to countries during crises. It is essentially important for India’s external sector and role in the International Monetary Fund. Aspirants should know more about other international assets included by the IMF.
Explanation:
— India’s forex reserves have four components: foreign currency (FX) assets, gold, Special Drawing Rights (SDRs), and the Reserve Tranche Position with the International Monetary Fund (IMF). Hence, statement 1 is correct.
About SDR
— SDRs are a buffer of sorts for IMF members, who can exchange it for currency when they are in trouble. The value of SDRs is based on a basket of five currencies – the US dollar, the euro, the Chinese renminbi, the Japanese yen, and the pound sterling. As of March 13, India’s SDR holdings were worth $18.7 billion. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
— The SDR is not a currency, but rather an asset that holders can exchange for currency as needed. The IMF and other international organisations use the SDR as their unit of account. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
— Individuals and private entities cannot hold SDRs. Individuals and private businesses cannot hold SDRs, but IMF members and the IMF itself do, and the IMF has the right to approve other holders, such as central banks and multilateral development banks. Hence, statement 4 is not correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
(Other Source: http://www.imf.org)
With reference to the Defence Acquisition Council (DAC), consider the following statements:
1. It is responsible for the procurement of defence equipment from other countries.
2. It is headed by the President of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2026?
The question tests clarity on defence procurement. It is also linked to Atmanirbhar Bharat and reforms in defence acquisitions. Aspirants must study about roles and composition of key government bodies for the UPSC prelims.
Explanation:
— The Defence Acquisition Council (DAC) cleared a proposal to procure five additional S-400 long range surface-to-air missile systems from Russia, months after the S-400s reportedly demonstrated their capability during Operation Sindoor. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
— The DAC also cleared several other key acquisition proposals, including the procurement of medium transport aircraft and remotely piloted strike aircraft for the Indian Air Force, as well as armoured piercing tank ammunition and Dhanush gun systems for the Army, among others. The proposals are together worth about Rs 2.38 lakh crore.
— The DAC also cleared the overhaul of the Su-30 aero engine and its aggregates, which, the MoD said, will increase the service life of the aircraft and fulfil the IAF’s operational requirements.
— For the Army, the DAC approved proposals to procure the air defence tracked system, armoured piercing tank ammunition, Dhanush gun system, high capacity radio relay and runway independent aerial surveillance system.
— The DAC, headed by Defence Minister Rajnath Singh, is the key defence body that grants AoN for all big-ticket capital procurements. While the AoN is the first step in the defence procurement process, obtaining it may or may not lead to a final order. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Which of the following countries can legally collect fees for the crossing?
1. Egypt – Suez Canal
2. Iran – Strait of Hormuz
3. Panama – Panama Canal
4. France – Strait of Gibraltar
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 2 and 4 only
Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2026?
The question is important due to frequent geopolitical tensions. It is also important for mapping and international relations. Aspirants must know about UNCLOS and right of transit passage.
Explanation:
— Iran’s effective blockade of the Strait of Hormuz has emerged as its most effective strategic tool in the war, allowing it to maintain leverage and stonewall the US’s attempts to push for peace.
— Iran legally cannot stop ships from using the Strait of Hormuz or levy a “toll” to let ships through. This is because unlike the human-made Suez and Panama canals, for which Egypt and Panama legally charge fees, the Strait of Hormuz is a natural international strait. Similarly, for the Strait of Gibraltar.
— According to Section 38 of the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS), all ships (commercial and military) enjoy the right of transit passage. This means they can pass through the strait solely for continuous and expeditious transit between one part of the high seas (or EEZ) and another. Also, such vessels must not be a threat to the bordering nations (UNCLOS Article 39).
— Article 44 of the UNCLOS states that coastal states — Iran and Oman, in this case — “shall not hamper” or suspend this passage. Charging a fee is legally interpreted as “hampering” passage because it turns a sovereign right into a conditional permit. Attacking a ship for entering the strait is, obviously, illegal as per international law.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
The Most-Favoured-Nation (MFN) principle is a core feature of which of the following international frameworks?
(a) World Trade Organisation agreements
(b) United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change
(c) International Monetary Fund lending policies
(d) World Health Organisation regulations
Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2026?
The principle of MFN is important for understanding non-discrimination in international economic relations. It can be asked in the UPSC prelims due to the news. Aspirants should be aware of such terms related to International organisations.
Explanation:
— WTO Director-General Ngozi Okonjo-Iweala has dubbed the conference a ‘turning point ministerial’, one that comes at a time when its trade dispute settlement powers have been rendered dysfunctional, with successive American administrations blocking the appointment of judges to the WTO’s dispute settlement body.
— The US is pushing for radical reforms, such as a rethink on the ‘most-favoured nation’ (MFN) principle that ensures non-discriminatory trade practices, and incorporating a plurilateral agreement in the WTO architecture, which is seen as a contrast to long-established consensus-based decision-making.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements:
1. Only an estimated 150 or fewer number of species survive in the wild in the country, predominantly in Rajasthan.
2. It is a key indicator species of the grassland habitat.
3. It has faced population decline over the years due to hunting, habitat loss, and in recent years, due to collisions with energy transmission lines.
The above-mentioned statements refer to:
(a) Indian Peafowl
(b) Great Indian Bustard
(c) Sarus Crane
(d) Lesser Florican
Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2026?
The topic highlights issues of grassland ecosystem degradation. It also links biodiversity loss with infrastructure challenges like power transmission lines. Aspirants must know about this species, important for UPSC prelims.
Explanation:
— The conservation of the critically endangered Great Indian Bustard (GIB) bird got a shot in the arm as Gujarat saw the birth of a GIB chick for the first time in a decade. The egg hatched on March 26.
— This chick was born following the ‘jump-start’ method in which a female GIB in Gujarat incubated a fertile egg that was transported hundreds of kilometres from Rajasthan, replacing an infertile egg. This is a significant development for GIB conservation as Gujarat has only three surviving female GIBs in the grasslands of Kutch, leaving no possibility of having a fertile egg in the wild, the Environment Ministry said in a statement.
— Only an estimated 150 or fewer GIBs survive in the wild in the country, predominantly in Rajasthan. The large bird is a key indicator species of the grassland habitat. The GIB has faced population decline over the years due to hunting, habitat loss, and in recent years, due to collisions with energy transmission lines that criss-cross their habitat in Rajasthan and Gujarat.
— Under the Project GIB, the Rajasthan Forest Department and the Wildlife Institute of India established conservation breeding centres, where eggs collected from the wild are incubated artificially.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
With reference to the Bab el-Mandeb strait, consider the following statements:
1. It is at the mouth of the Mediterranean Sea.
2. It is between the Horn of Africa and the southern tip of the Arabian Peninsula.
3. Yemen lies on its western edge.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2026?
The question tests mapping of strategic chokepoints, a crucial for global trade routes. It is also linked to geopolitical tensions in Yemen and the Red Sea region. Map-based IR questions are frequently asked in UPSC prelims.
Explanation:
— Yemen’s Iran-backed Houthis launched ballistic missiles at Israel, their first such attack since the US-Israeli war on Iran. The group said it targeted “sensitive Israeli military sites” after Israel said that it had intercepted a missile from Yemen.
— Iran’s Houthi allies’ entry into the war not only risks widening the already expanding conflict but turns the focus to another critical maritime chokepoint — the Bab el-Mandeb strait at the mouth of the Red Sea, a region where they had triggered a massive commercial shipping disruption beginning late 2023.
About Bab el-Mandeb strait
— The Bab el Mandeb is a 20-mile-wide, 70-mile-long strait between the Horn of Africa and the southern tip of the Arabian Peninsula, serving as the southern entry to the Red Sea from the Gulf of Aden and the Indian Ocean beyond. Hence, statement 1 is not correct and statement 2 is correct.
— It is bordered to the west by Eritrea and Djibouti, and to the east by Yemen. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
(Other Source: http://www.nationalgeographic.com)
Consider the following statements:
1. The Union government cannot permit an officer to withdraw his/her resignation even if an officer withdraws their resignation in writing before its acceptance.
2. No retirement benefits may be granted to a person who has been dismissed or removed from the Service or who has resigned from the Service.
Which of the above given statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2026?
This question doesn’t require you to master every detail of service rules, which would be excessive at the Prelims stage. Instead, it tests your basic awareness because the Kannan Gopinathan and Shah Faesal cases are in the news, highlighting how UPSC often frames questions by linking fundamental concepts with current affairs.
Explanation:
— This delay, he said, has prevented him from contesting the forthcoming Kerala Assembly elections as a Congress candidate.
— The resignation of an officer of any of the three All-India Services — the IAS, the Indian Police Service (IPS) and the Indian Forest Service — is governed by Rules 5(1) and 5(1)(A) of the All India Services (Death-cum-Retirement Benefits) Rules, 1958. There are similar resignation rules for officers belonging to the other central services as well.
— An officer serving in a cadre (cadre refers to a state or group of states or Union Territories to which they are assigned) must submit their resignation to the Chief Secretary of the state.
— Officers on central deputation from a cadre are required to submit their resignation to the secretary of the ministry or department concerned. The ministry or department then forwards the officer’s resignation to the state cadre concerned, along with its comments or recommendations. Cases of AGMUT (Arunachal Pradesh-Goa-Mizoram and Union Territories) officers are routed through the Union Ministry of Home Affairs. Gopinathan was from the AGMUT cadre.
— Rule 5 of the DCRB Rules says: “No retirement benefits may be granted to a person who has been dismissed or removed from the Service or who has resigned from the Service.” DoPT guidelines say a resignation has to be clear and unconditional.
— Gopinathan was not the only IAS officer to resign over the Kashmir issue in 2019. The 2010-batch officer Shah Faesal, too, had resigned in January of that year citing “unabated killings” in Kashmir. Faesal, however, withdrew his resignation and returned to the IAS in 2022 after a failed political stint.
— Rule 5(1A)(i) of the amended DCRB Rules says the Union government may permit an officer to withdraw his/her resignation “in the public interest”.
— An amendment in the Rules in 2011 states that the gap between the effective date of resignation and date of resumption of duty in such cases can be a maximum of 90 days. The amended DCRB Rules also say that the government shall not accept a withdrawal after an officer resigns with a view to begin political activities.
— But both these rules do not apply in Faesal’s case — because his resignation, too, was not processed for years.
— In his case, the rule that applies is that if an officer withdraws their resignation in writing before its acceptance, the resignation will be deemed to have been automatically withdrawn.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
What does the SRY gene, recently seen in the news, refer to?
(a) It is a gene responsible for mitochondrial energy production in human body
(b) It is a DNA segment on the Y chromosome that initiates male sex development
(c) It is a hormone that is important in female reproductive cycles
(d) It is a gene responsible for blood group determination
Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2026?
Such basic science concepts become important for UPSC Prelims especially when they are in the news. The exam often tests fundamental understanding of subjects like biology linked to current developments. Thus, making them essential for every aspirant to cover.
Explanation:
— In a seismic decision on Thursday, the International Olympic Committee (IOC) banned transgender women and DSD (Differences in Sex Development) athletes from competing in the female categories. Further, it added that any woman wanting to compete in international sport must now undergo a mandatory SRY gene screening, or a sex test.
— SRY stands for ‘sex determining region Y’. The SRY gene is a segment of DNA that is almost always on the Y chromosome, signalling the presence of testes/testicles and “initiating male sex development by the production of testosterone”, the IOC said.
— Professor Andrew Sinclair, who first discovered the SRY gene in 1990, had said last year that it is not an accurate marker. “If there is a change in the SRY gene so it does not function as usual, then a person can fail to develop testes and be biologically female,” he wrote in The Conversation last year.
— The participation of transgender women and DSD athletes in female categories has been one of the most contentious points in sport for decades. The IOC earlier said that transgender women “should not be deemed to have an unfair or disproportionate competitive advantage” over biological women. But science proved that having male chromosomes is an advantage when competing with females.
— So, the world body said the decision was taken to “protect the female category and for fairness and safety”. It added that based on the scientific evidence, “the SRY Gene is fixed throughout life and represents highly accurate evidence that an athlete has experienced or will experience male sex development”.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
The World Meteorological Organization recently released the State of the Global Climate Report 2025. For the first time, which of the following has been included as a key climate indicator?
(a) Ocean heat content
(b) Glacier mass balance
(c) Global mean temperature
(d) Earth’s energy imbalance
Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2026?
Sometimes UPSC does not focus on core findings of a report but asks what is new in it, such as newly added indicators. Even simple additions like key indicators can become important when a report is in the news, so an aspirant should read updates carefully.
Explanation:
— The global climate is in a state of emergency as the earth is dealing with a record energy imbalance, the World Meteorological Organization (WMO) said in its recently released State of the Global Climate report 2025. In this context, let’s know the key highlights of this report. The State of the Global Climate report 2025 released on World Meteorological Day (23rd March), is based on scientific contributions from National Meteorological and Hydrological Services, WMO Regional Climate Centres, United Nations partners and dozens of experts.
— According to the report, every key climate indicator is raising alarms and the years from 2015 to 2025 have been the hottest 11 years. It also mentioned that 2025 was the second or third hottest year on record, at about 1.43 °C above the 1850-1900 average. The 2025 report for the first time included the earth’s energy imbalance as one of the key climate indicators. Earth’s energy imbalance is the highest in a sixty five-year record.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
With reference to India’s updated climate targets for 2035, consider the following statements:
1. India aims to have at least 60% of its installed electricity capacity from non-fossil fuel sources by 2035.
2. India has committed to reduce its emissions intensity by at least 47% from 2005 levels by 2035.
3. India plans to create an additional carbon sink of 5 to 6 billion tonnes of carbon dioxide-equivalent over 2005 levels.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2026?
While memorising excessive data is generally not necessary for UPSC Prelims, areas like climate targets and commitments under the Paris Agreement are exceptions. Here, specific numbers and targets often become important, especially when they are in the news, so an aspirant should be well-prepared with both concepts and key data points.
Explanation:
— India said it would ensure that at least 60% of its electricity installed capacity in 2035 was based on non-fossil fuel sources, up from the 50% target it had set for 2030. It has promised to attain at least a 47% reduction in emissions intensity, or emissions per unit of GDP, on 2005 levels, which is two percentage points more than its current target of 45% for 2030. And, it has promised to create a carbon sink that is at least 3.5 to 4 billion tonnes of CO2-equivalent larger than what existed in 2005.
— Each of the new targets marks a progression over existing commitments for 2030, a mandatory requirement under the 2015 Paris Agreement. Under this 2015 pact, every country is obligated to decide upon, and implement, a set of climate actions that help the global fight against climate change. These are referred to as nationally-determined contributions, or NDCs— emphasising the fact that countries themselves decide the nature and scale of climate actions.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements regarding Helium:
1. It is a non-renewable resource that is rare on Earth despite being abundant in the universe.
2. It is chemically inert and has an atomic number of 2.
3. Qatar is the world’s third largest exporter of Helium after the United States and Russia.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Why this question for UPSC Prelims 2026?
This is not merely a static science question, its importance lies in current affairs, as disruptions in global helium supply and their impact on sectors like healthcare have brought it into the news. UPSC often tests such “connect-the-dots” understanding, where basic concepts are linked with contemporary developments, making it essential for an aspirant to integrate static knowledge with news.
Explanation:
1. Helium, a colourless, odourless, gas – the first of the six noble gases in the periodic table – is a non-renewable resource which, despite being the second most abundant element in the universe after hydrogen, is rare on Earth. Helium escapes Earth’s gravity due to its low atomic mass, making it difficult to store naturally.
2. Helium is inert — it does not react with other substances or combust — and its atomic number is 2, making it the second lightest element after hydrogen.
3. Helium is produced commercially by extracting it from natural gas by a process known as cryogenic distillation. Qatar is the world’s third largest exporter of natural gas after the United States and Russia.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz | March 15 to March 21, 2026
UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz | March 08 to March 14, 2026
UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz | March 01 to March 07, 2026
UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz | February 22 to February 28, 2026
UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz | February 15 to February 21, 2026
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